HPPSC HPAS 2025 Prelims Question Paper : Answer key & Solutions

📄 HPPSC HPAS 2025 Question Paper with Solutions & Answer Key

If you are searching for the HPPSC HPAS 2025 Question Paper and its official answer key, you’re in the right place! This post brings you a complete breakdown of the HPAS 2025 Prelims question paper, subject-wise solutions, and expert answer explanations.

Table of Contents

We’ve included external links to the:

  • ✅ Official HPAS 2025 Question Paper (PDF) : Click here
  • 📝 HPAS 2025 Provisional Answer Key (HPPSC) : Click here
  • 🗂️ Final Answer Key for HPAS 2025 Question Paper (HPPSC) : : Click here

In this post, every question is tagged with its subject category (like History, Geography, Polity, Environment, Current Affairs, etc.) and is accompanied by a clear and concise solution for better understanding.

This blog will help:

  • 🧑‍🎓 Aspirants preparing for HPAS 2026 to understand the paper pattern and difficulty level.
  • 📘 Candidates looking for reliable and explained solutions to the 2025 paper.
  • 📈 Students tracking PYQs and trend analysis to strengthen their preparation strategy.

📌 Explore more HPAS resources:

  • 🔍 HPAS Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQ)Click here
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  • 📒 HPAS Notes and Study MaterialClick here
  • 📅 HPAS 2026 Preparation Strategy & Timetable – Click here
  • 📑 Download Official HPPSC HPAS 2025 NotificationsClick here

Let’s begin the subject-wise question analysis of the HPAS 2025 Prelims Paper-I (General Studies).

Q1. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Current Affairs)

Question:
Statement I: India’s first wolf sanctuary is located at Bankapur in Karnataka.
Statement II: The Indian grey wolf is classified as an endangered species by the IUCN.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Bankapur in Karnataka is not India’s first wolf sanctuary; that title belongs to the Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary in Jharkhand, which is the first and only dedicated wolf sanctuary in India.
  • The Indian grey wolf (Canis lupus pallipes) is not classified as ‘Endangered’ by the IUCN; it is listed as ‘Least Concern’, though it is considered regionally threatened in India due to habitat loss and conflict.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Environment (Current Affairs)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Wildlife protection and conservation updates are commonly asked in HPPSC HPAS Prelims, especially under environmental current affairs.

Q2. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Climate Policy)

Question:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The withdrawal of USA from Paris Agreement in 2025 will strengthen global climate action momentum.
Statement II: India has indicated a shift in its climate change approach by focusing less on adaptation rather than mitigation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

✅ Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement I is incorrect because the withdrawal of the USA from the Paris Agreement would weaken the global climate momentum by reducing commitment from one of the world’s major polluters.
  • Statement II is also incorrect — India’s climate policy has recently emphasized more on adaptation, such as strengthening climate-resilient infrastructure and agriculture, not less. This marks a shift toward balancing mitigation with adaptation strategies.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Environment – Climate Policy
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper : Questions from international climate agreements and India’s changing climate strategies are highly relevant under GS Paper I – Environment section of HPAS Prelims.

Q3. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – General Science (Static)

Question Paper:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Magnetite is a natural magnet.
Statement II: A freely suspended magnet always aligns in N-S direction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement I is correct: Magnetite (Fe₃O₄) is a naturally occurring mineral and is one of the few substances that exhibit natural magnetism.
  • Statement II is correct: When suspended freely, a magnet aligns itself along the Earth’s magnetic field lines, pointing in the north-south direction.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): General Science (Static)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper : Fundamental concepts of science such as magnetism are regularly asked in the HPPSC HPAS question paper, making them important for both conceptual clarity and prelims scoring.

Q4. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – General Science (Static)

Question :
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia.
Statement II: Force of friction always opposes motion of objects.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation:

  • Statement I is correct: Inertia refers to the resistance of any physical object to any change in its velocity. The mass of an object is directly proportional to its inertia — higher the mass, greater the inertia.
  • Statement II is correct: Frictional force always acts in the direction opposite to the motion, whether it is static, sliding, or rolling.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): General Science (Static)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Physics-based questions like friction and inertia are regularly featured in the HPPSC HPAS question paper, helping assess conceptual clarity of fundamental laws of motion.

Q5. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Science & Tech (Current Affairs)

Question:
Tianwen-1 Mars mission pertains to which of the following country?

(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) USA

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) China

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
China’s first Mars probe is called Tianwen-1 (formerly Huoxing 1).
The spacecraft consists of an orbiter, a lander, and a rover.
It was launched on a Long March 5 rocket from Xichang, China.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Science & Tech (Current Affairs)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: International scientific missions like Tianwen-1 are commonly featured in the HPAS 2025 question paper to test awareness of space advancements and international achievements.

Q6. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Tropical humid climates exist between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Statement II: Mediterranean type of climate occurs around Mediterranean Sea.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Statement I is correct — Tropical humid climates, like the equatorial rainforest climate, are predominantly located between 23.5°N (Tropic of Cancer) and 23.5°S (Tropic of Capricorn) where solar insolation is high and rainfall is abundant year-round.

Statement II is also correct — The Mediterranean climate is found on the western coasts of continents, most notably around the Mediterranean Sea, and is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Geography (Static)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Climatic zones and their distribution are key components in physical geography, often asked in the HPAS 2025 question paper to test conceptual clarity.

Q7. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The meanest and most onerous kind of forced labour was to carry loads known as ‘Pund Begar’.
Statement II: The Begar forms in Chamba State were five in number called ‘Panj Haqq’.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Statement I is correctPund Begar was regarded as the most degrading and burdensome form of forced labour in Himachal Pradesh, where individuals were compelled to carry heavy loads without any remuneration.

Statement II is correct — In Chamba State, there were five officially recognized types of begar, collectively referred to as Panj Haqq, including:

  1. Royal Service Begar – For carrying loads during royal tours or hunting expeditions.
  2. British Officer Begar – Assigned for British officials’ travels.
  3. Ceremonial Begar – Provided during royal ceremonies like weddings or funerals.
  4. Construction Begar – For transporting materials during palace repairs.
  5. Road Begar – Involved maintenance of public infrastructure.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Forced labour practices such as Begar and their historical classification are frequently covered in the HP-specific section of the HPAS question paper to test understanding of colonial social structures in the hill states.

Q8. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Gujjars of Himachal Pradesh are both Hindus and Muslims.
Statement II: Lahaulis and Spitians have Mongoloid features.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation:
Statement I is correct — The Gujjars in Himachal Pradesh are a tribal community found primarily in districts like Sirmaur, Chamba, and parts of Kangra. They follow both Hinduism and Islam, depending on the region and cultural assimilation.

Statement II is correct — The Lahaulis and Spitians, native to the trans-Himalayan zones of Himachal Pradesh, generally exhibit Mongoloid racial features, owing to their ethnic lineage and cultural proximity to Tibetan traditions and Buddhist heritage.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance in HPAS 2025 Question Paper : Understanding the cultural and ethnic diversity of Himachal Pradesh is crucial for GS Paper I and has recurring relevance in HPAS question papers.

Q9. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rohtang Pass lies in Dhauladhar ranges.
Statement II: Kunzum Pass is famous as Valley of Shadows.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper) : (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Statement I is incorrectRohtang Pass lies in the Pir Panjal range, not the Dhauladhar range. The Pir Panjal lies to the north of the Dhauladhar range and connects Kullu with Lahaul.

Statement II is incorrect — The “Valley of Shadows” is a title associated with the Pin Parbati Pass, not Kunzum Pass.

Subject (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance in HPAS (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): Geography of Himachal Pradesh, especially important mountain passes and ranges, is frequently asked in HPAS Prelims and Mains under GS Paper I and State-specific questions.

Q10. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the administrative structure of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th Century:

Statement I: Tehsils were divided into waziris, and waziris into phatis.
Statement II: Each phati was further divided into kothis.

Choose the correct option:
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Only statement I is correct
(C) Only statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D) Both statements are incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
The administrative setup in Kullu during the rule of the Rajas was structured differently:

  • The region was divided into ‘waziris’, which were equivalent to provinces.
  • Each waziri was divided into ‘kothis’, not phatis.
  • Each kothi was further subdivided into ‘phatis’, and each phati could contain up to 20 villages.

Thus, the sequence was: Waziris → Kothis → Phatis → Villages.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Administrative history of princely states like Kullu is a recurring theme in HPAS Prelims and GS-I Mains paper .

Q11. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Arrange the following States

Question:
Arrange the following states with the share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 from highest to lowest:
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) West Bengal (3) Telangana (4) Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (1), (3), (4)
(C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(D) (2), (4), (1), (3)


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): No option is correct — The correct order is (1), (3), (4), (2)


Data (2024 Women-Led MSMEs):

  • Tamil Nadu: 2,92,769
  • Telangana: 1,41,463
  • Karnataka: 1,34,394
  • West Bengal: 1,05,733

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Based on 2024 figures, women-led MSMEs are highest in Tamil Nadu, followed by Telangana, Karnataka, and West Bengal — resulting in the sequence 1 → 3 → 4 → 2.


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Women entrepreneurship in India (Economy – Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: This question tests awareness of the gender dimension in MSME distribution and regional economic profiles — fitting within the Economic & Social Development portion of GS Paper I Prelims and GS Paper III Mains.

Q12. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Scheme Chronology (Newest to Oldest)

Question:
Arrange the following schemes of Government of India from newest to oldest:

  1. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
  2. Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes
  3. Atal Bhujal Yojana
  4. Stand-up India Yojana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (3), (1), (4)
(C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(D) (2), (4), (1), (3)


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) (2), (3), (1), (4)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Chronological order of launch (from newest to oldest):

  • MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative): 5th June 2023
  • Atal Bhujal Yojana: 25th December 2019
  • Saubhagya (PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana): 25th September 2017
  • Stand-Up India: 5th April 2016

Hence, correct arrangement is: 2 → 3 → 1 → 4


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Government Schemes (Current Affairs – Economy)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Recognizing and sequencing key national schemes is a regular part of GS Paper I (Prelims).

Q13. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Chronology (Modern Indian History)

Question:
Arrange the following events related to Modern Indian History in chronological order:

  1. Ganpati Festival started by Tilak
  2. Appointment of a Police Commission Chaired by Andrew Fraser
  3. Shivaji Mahotsav started by Tilak
  4. Appointment of Hunter Education Commission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (4), (3), (2)
(B) (4), (1), (3), (2)
(C) (1), (3), (2), (4)
(D) (4), (1), (2), (3)


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) (4), (1), (3), (2)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  1. Hunter Education Commission – 1882
  2. Ganpati Festival by Tilak – 1893
  3. Shivaji Mahotsav by Tilak – 1895
  4. Andrew Fraser Police Commission – 1902–03

So, chronological order is: 4 → 1 → 3 → 2


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: History (Modern Indian History – Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding reform movements, commissions, and key personalities like Tilak is vital for Prelims and Mains (GS Paper I).

Q14. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Chronology (Governor-Generals of British India)

Question:
Arrange these Governor General/Viceroys of British India in chronological order:

  1. Lord Auckland
  2. Lord Ellenborough
  3. Lord Lansdowne
  4. Lord Elgin I

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
(B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(C) (4), (1), (2), (3)
(D) (4), (2), (1), (3)


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

Here is the chronological order based on their tenure:

  1. Lord Auckland – 1836 to 1842
  2. Lord Ellenborough – 1842 to 1844
  3. Lord Elgin I – 1862 to 1863
  4. Lord Lansdowne – 1888 to 1894

Thus, the correct chronological sequence is:
Lord Auckland → Lord Ellenborough → Lord Elgin I → Lord Lansdowne


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: History (Modern Indian History – Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Chronology of Governor-Generals/Viceroys is a frequently tested topic in HPAS Prelims due to its administrative and historical importance in British India.

Q15. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following uplands of Peninsular India from South to North:

  1. Palghat
  2. Javadi Hills
  3. Bhorghat
  4. Rajmahal Hills

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
(C) (3), (4), (2), (1)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)


Explanation:
Let’s place the uplands geographically from south to north:

  • Palghat Gap – Located in Kerala-Tamil Nadu border, it is the southernmost among the listed features.
  • Javadi Hills – Located north of Palghat in Tamil Nadu.
  • Bhorghat – A mountain pass in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.
  • Rajmahal Hills – Located in northeastern Jharkhand, this is the northernmost among the four.

Hence, the correct sequence from South to North is:
Palghat → Javadi Hills → Bhorghat → Rajmahal Hills


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Geography (Static – Physiography of India)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Questions testing spatial awareness of Indian physiographic features like gaps, hills, and passes are common in the HPAS Prelims.

Q16. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South:

  1. Corbett
  2. Valmiki
  3. Indrawati
  4. Bhadra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
(B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(C) (1), (3), (2), (4)
(D) (1), (4), (2), (3)


Correct Answer: (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)


Explanation:
Here’s the correct north-to-south geographical order of these tiger reserves:

  • Corbett Tiger Reserve – Located in Uttarakhand, this is the northernmost.
  • Valmiki Tiger Reserve – Located in West Champaran district of Bihar, east and slightly south of Corbett.
  • Indravati Tiger Reserve – Found in southern Chhattisgarh.
  • Bhadra Tiger Reserve – Located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, making it the southernmost among these.

Hence, the correct order is:
Corbett → Valmiki → Indrawati → Bhadra


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment (Static – Protected Areas)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Protected areas like Tiger Reserves frequently feature in HPAS due to their environmental, ecological, and current affairs significance.

Q17. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following freedom movement events in order of their happenings:

  1. INA Trial
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Civil Disobedience Movement
  4. Non-Cooperation Movement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)


Correct Answer: (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)


Explanation:

Here’s the correct chronological order of the major mass movements during India’s freedom struggle:

  1. Non-Cooperation Movement – Launched in 1920 by Mahatma Gandhi after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat issue.
  2. Civil Disobedience Movement – Initiated in 1930 with the Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha).
  3. Quit India Movement – Started in 1942, also known as the August Movement, demanding an end to British Rule.
  4. INA Trial – Took place in 1945–46, when officers of the Indian National Army were prosecuted by the British, which sparked nationwide protests.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Chronological understanding of major nationalist movements is a common theme in HPAS Prelims to test conceptual clarity and historical sequencing.

Q18. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Static + Current Affairs)

Question:
Arrange the following by the year they became operational in India’s financial sector:

  1. Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
  2. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
  3. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
  4. Account Aggregator Framework

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
(D) (3), (2), (1), (4)


Correct Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)


Explanation:

Here’s the correct chronological order of when each financial system became operational in India:

  1. RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement)2004
    • A system where fund transfer takes place in real-time and on a gross basis.
  2. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer)2005
    • An electronic fund transfer system that operates in half-hourly batches.
  3. UPI (Unified Payments Interface)2016
    • A mobile-based real-time payment system developed by NPCI to enable instant money transfers.
  4. Account Aggregator Framework2021
    • Introduced by RBI to enable sharing of financial data across institutions in a regulated manner with user consent.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Static + Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Chronological developments in digital payments and financial inclusion tools are high-relevance areas in Prelims, especially under economic reforms and governance topics.

Q19. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following monetary policy tools by the order in which RBI typically uses them to control inflation:

  1. Open Market Operations (OMO)
  2. Repo Rate Hike
  3. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Adjustment
  4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Adjustment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
(D) (3), (2), (1), (4)


Correct Answer: (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)


Explanation:

When inflation rises, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) generally follows a stepwise tightening approach:

  1. Repo Rate Hike – First and most direct tool. A hike in the repo rate makes borrowing costlier, reducing money supply and demand.
  2. Open Market Operations (OMO) – RBI sells government securities to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system.
  3. SLR Adjustment – Modifying the statutory reserve banks must hold can tighten bank lending capacity.
  4. CRR Adjustment – Used less frequently as it affects banks’ liquidity severely; used more as a last resort.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding RBI’s monetary policy tools is crucial for tackling inflation-related questions in General Studies Paper-I of the HPAS Prelims.

Q20. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Arrange the following items in descending order as a percentage of GDP in India:

  1. Gross Fiscal Deficit
  2. Gross Domestic Capital Formation
  3. Central Government Debt
  4. Gross Tax Revenue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (3), (2), (4), (1)
(B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
(C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
(D) (2), (3), (1), (4)


Correct Answer: (A) (3), (2), (4), (1)


Explanation:
According to recent economic data from the Government of India:

  • Central Government Debt is the highest among the given indicators at approximately 57% of GDP.
  • Gross Domestic Capital Formation stands around 29.5% of GDP, reflecting total investment in the economy.
  • Gross Tax Revenue is around 11.6% of GDP, comprising all taxes collected by the Centre.
  • Gross Fiscal Deficit is around 5.8% of GDP, indicating the shortfall between government income and expenditure.

Hence, the correct descending order is:
Central Government Debt > Capital Formation > Tax Revenue > Fiscal Deficit


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: This type of data-driven ranking question tests awareness of key fiscal metrics—a vital component of General Studies Paper I in HPAS Prelims.

Q21. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Arrange the following states in descending order as per Worker Population Ratio (WPR) of all ages according to the PLFS 2023–24 report:

  1. Punjab
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Haryana
  4. Uttarakhand

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (3), (2), (4)
(B) (2), (4), (1), (3)
(C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
(D) (2), (3), (1), (4)


Correct Answer: (B) (2), (4), (1), (3)


Explanation:
As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023–24, the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) (for all ages) is:

  • Himachal Pradesh57.2%
  • Uttarakhand44.2%
  • Punjab41.3%
  • Haryana36.1%
  • India (overall)43.7%

So, in descending order of WPR:
Himachal Pradesh > Uttarakhand > Punjab > Haryana


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: PLFS indicators like WPR and LFPR are crucial for understanding employment trends in India and are regularly asked in HPAS Prelims.

Q22. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment & Geography (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following ecological hotspots of the world from West to East:

  1. Tropical Andes
  2. Upper Guinean Forests
  3. Eastern Madagascar
  4. Melanesia (New Caledonia)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (2), (3), (4), (1)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)


Correct Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)


Explanation:
The ecological hotspots in correct west-to-east geographical sequence are:

  • Tropical Andes – Located in Western South America (Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia)
  • Upper Guinean Forests – Found in West Africa (Ivory Coast, Ghana, Liberia)
  • Eastern Madagascar – An island nation off the southeast coast of Africa
  • Melanesia (New Caledonia) – Located in the western Pacific Ocean, part of Oceania

Hence, the correct order is: (1), (2), (3), (4)


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment & Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Hotspots are an important static topic in environment and biodiversity and are regularly asked in HPAS and other UPSC-aligned exams.

Q23. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment & Geography (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following National Parks of India from West to East:

  1. Kanha
  2. Vansda
  3. Kaziranga
  4. Bhitarkanika

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (2), (1), (3), (4)
(B) (1), (3), (2), (4)
(C) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(D) (3), (2), (4), (1)


Correct Answer: (C) (2), (1), (4), (3)


Explanation:
Here is the correct West to East geographical sequence:

  • Vansda National Park – Located in Gujarat, westernmost of the options
  • Kanha National Park – Situated in Madhya Pradesh, central India
  • Bhitarkanika National Park – Found on the Odisha coast in eastern India
  • Kaziranga National Park – Located in Assam, the farthest east of all listed

Thus, the correct order is: (2), (1), (4), (3)


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment & Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Mapping-based questions on National Parks are frequently asked to test candidates’ grasp of Indian geography and protected areas.

Q24. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Science (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of their pH value:

  1. Gastric Juice
  2. Milk of Magnesia
  3. Lemon Juice
  4. Pure Water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (1), (3), (4), (2)


Correct Answer: (D) (1), (3), (4), (2)


Explanation:
pH is a scale used to measure acidity or alkalinity of a substance:

  • Gastric Juice: Extremely acidic, pH 1.5–3.5
  • Lemon Juice: Strong acid, pH ~2–3
  • Pure Water: Neutral, pH = 7
  • Milk of Magnesia: Basic (alkaline), pH ~10.5

So, increasing order of pH value is:
Gastric Juice < Lemon Juice < Pure Water < Milk of Magnesia

Thus, the correct sequence is: (1), (3), (4), (2)


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Science (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Basic understanding of acid-base chemistry and real-life examples of pH is frequently tested in general science sections of HPAS Prelims.

Q25. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which position did India get in the Global Innovation Index 2024?

(A) 35th
(B) 39th
(C) 55th
(D) 25th


Correct Answer: (B) 39th


Explanation:
India was ranked 39th in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024, as per the rankings released by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: India’s performance in global indices like GII is a commonly tested topic under economic development and innovation-related current affairs.

Q26. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
Arrange the following tectonic plates of the world from North to South:

(1) Scotia Plate
(2) Cocos Plate
(3) Nazca Plate
(4) Juan De Fuca Plate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1), (3), (2), (4)
(B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
(D) (4), (2), (1), (3)


Correct Answer: (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)


Explanation:

  • Juan De Fuca Plate: Located off the Pacific Northwest coast of the USA and Canada — farthest north.
  • Cocos Plate: Situated off the western coast of Central America, south of Juan De Fuca.
  • Nazca Plate: Lies off the western coast of South America, mainly Peru and Chile.
  • Scotia Plate: Located south of South America, close to Antarcticafarthest south.

This order aligns with their latitudinal positioning from north to south across the western hemisphere.


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding the major tectonic plates and their positions is essential in physical geography and is frequently asked in UPSC and HPAS-level examinations.

Q27. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Arrange these foreign travellers who visited Himachal Pradesh in chronological order:

(1) Captain Munde
(2) Baron Hugel
(3) J.B. Fraser
(4) Alexander Gerard

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (2), (1), (3), (4)
(B) (4), (3), (1), (2)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (3), (1), (2), (4)


Correct Answer: (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)


Explanation:

  1. J.B. Fraser – Visited the Himalayan regions, including present-day Himachal Pradesh, around 1815. His travel accounts are among the earliest written records of this area.
  2. Alexander Gerard – Explored Lahaul and Spiti extensively in 1817, alongside his brother Dr. Gerard.
  3. Captain Munde – A military officer who explored Himachal in the 1829.
  4. Baron Charles von Hugel – An Austrian traveller and botanist who toured India, including Himachal, during 1835–1839.

Thus, the correct chronological sequence is:
Fraser → Gerard → Munde → Hugel


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Foreign travellers to Himachal Pradesh are often referenced in HP-specific history questions.

Q28. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. The first step in rural electrification was taken on January 14, 1958 when lights were switched on at Sundernagar.
  2. At the time of electrification of Sundernagar in Mandi district, its population was nearly 12,000 and its 20 nearby villages in the fertile Balh Valley were given electrification.
  3. The electrification programme in the state was divided into two parts:
    (i) Local power generation in high valleys remote from district HQs.
    (ii) Lower belts near Punjab were to get electricity from Nangal and Uhl river feeder.
  4. The Shanan powerhouse is currently under the control of Punjab State Electricity Board, and all revenue from it goes to Punjab Government.

Choose the correct answer:

(A) Only (1) and (3) are correct
(B) Only (3) and (4) are correct
(C) Only (1) and (2) are correct
(D) Only (4) and (2) are correct


Correct Answer: (A) Only (1) and (3) are correct


Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct – Himachal Pradesh took its first rural electrification step on January 14, 1958, at Sundernagar, marking a significant milestone in the state’s development.
  • Statement 2 is inaccurate – While Sundernagar and Balh Valley were electrified, the population figures and exact count of 20 villages are not verified in official records.
  • Statement 3 is correct – The electrification plan was strategically divided:
    • Remote high valleys = Local power generation.
    • Lower belts near Punjab = Electricity from Nangal and Uhl.
  • Statement 4 is partially outdated – Although the Shanan project was built by British engineers and later managed by Punjab, the revenue-sharing and control aspects are more nuanced today and not entirely under Punjab’s benefit anymore (as of recent updates and disputes over asset sharing).

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper:
Electrification history, major power projects, and regional planning in Himachal Pradesh are frequently tested under the Economy & Infrastructure section of HP-specific GS papers.

Q29. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Match the representative of princely hill states who participated as their representative of population for the constitution of Himachal Pradesh into a single state:

List I (Representative Name)List II (Princely State)
(a) Surat Ram Prakash(i) Jubbal
(b) Hira Singh Pal(ii) Bhajji
(c) Bhaskara Nand(iii) Baghat
(d) Salig Ram Tejta(iv) Theog

Choose the correct match:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A) (i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
(B) (iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
(C) (iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
(D) (iii)(ii)(iv)(i)

Correct Answer: (C)
(a) → Theog
(b) → Baghat
(c) → Bhajji
(d) → Jubbal


Explanation:
These individuals represented their respective princely hill states during the unification efforts for the formation of Himachal Pradesh after independence. This question tests your knowledge of the political integration of princely states, a key aspect in the early political history of Himachal Pradesh.

Representative NamePrincely State
Surat Ram PrakashTheog
Hira Singh PalBaghat
Bhaskara NandBhajji
Salig Ram TejtaJubbal

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper:
This question directly relates to the political unification process of Himachal Pradesh, a frequently examined theme under the history and polity of the state in the General Studies Paper of HPAS Prelims and Mains.

Q30. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Science (Static)

Question:
What is the audible range of sound for the average human ear?

Options:
(A) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(B) 0 Hz to 20 Hz
(C) 20 kHz to 50 kHz
(D) 50 kHz to 1 MHz


Correct Answer: (A) 20 Hz to 20 kHz


Explanation:
The human ear is sensitive to sound waves in the frequency range of 20 Hertz (Hz) to 20,000 Hertz (20 kHz).

  • Sounds below 20 Hz are termed infrasonic and are not audible.
  • Sounds above 20 kHz are ultrasonic and also fall outside the hearing range.
    This range may slightly vary with age and health, particularly decreasing in higher frequencies as a person ages.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Science (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper:
Basic concepts of sound and human physiology are commonly asked in the General Science section of the HPAS Prelims, making this a straightforward factual question based on NCERT-level content.

Q31. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Current Affairs)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. India has a total of 89 Ramsar sites on February 2, 2025.
  2. Udhwa Lake is the first Ramsar site of Jharkhand.
  3. Khecheopalri Ramsar site is in Tamil Nadu.
  4. World Wetlands Day 2025 was organised and celebrated at Sundarbans in West Bengal.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (2) and (3) only
(B) (1) and (4) only
(C) (3) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (2) only


Correct Answer: (D) (1) and (2) only)


Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: As of February 2, 2025, India officially had 89 Ramsar sites.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Udhwa Lake became Jharkhand’s first Ramsar site, a significant development in wetland conservation in eastern India.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Khecheopalri Lake is located in Sikkim, not Tamil Nadu.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: World Wetlands Day 2025 was celebrated at Parvati Arga Wetland in Uttar Pradesh, not at the Sundarbans in West Bengal.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper:
Environmental current affairs, especially related to wetlands, Ramsar sites, and internationally significant events like World Wetlands Day, are a regular feature in HPAS Prelims. They test awareness of biodiversity conservation and environmental governance in India.

Q32. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Current Affairs (Sports)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. 38th National Games were held in Patna.
  2. 39th National Games will be held in Meghalaya.
  3. The mascot for the 38th National Games was Mauli, inspired by the Himalayan Monal.
  4. Haryana was the top performer in the 38th National Games.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (2) and (3) only
(B) (1) and (2) only
(C) (2) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (3) only


Correct Answer: (A) (2) and (3) only)


Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The 38th National Games were held in Uttarakhand, not Patna.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The 39th National Games are scheduled to be held in Meghalaya.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The mascot for the 38th National Games was Mauli, modeled after the Himalayan Monal, Uttarakhand’s state bird.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Services team, not Haryana, emerged as the top performer at the 38th National Games.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Current Affairs (Sports)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper:
Questions related to national sporting events, their details—like host state, mascot, and medal tallies—are frequently featured to test candidates on recent national-level achievements and updates in sports.

Q32. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Current Affairs (Sports)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. 38th National Games were held in Patna.
  2. 39th National Games will be held in Meghalaya.
  3. The mascot for the 38th National Games was Mauli, inspired by the Himalayan Monal.
  4. Haryana was the top performer in the 38th National Games.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (2) and (3) only
(B) (1) and (2) only
(C) (2) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (3) only


Correct Answer: (A) (2) and (3) only)


Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The 38th National Games were held in Uttarakhand, not Patna.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The 39th National Games are scheduled to be held in Meghalaya.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The mascot for the 38th National Games was Mauli, modeled after the Himalayan Monal, Uttarakhand’s state bird.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Services team, not Haryana, emerged as the top performer at the 38th National Games.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Current Affairs (Sports)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper:
Questions related to national sporting events, their details—like host state, mascot, and medal tallies—are frequently featured to test candidates on recent national-level achievements and updates in sports.

Q33. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – History (Modern India)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. Mir Mahboob Ali Khan, the 6th Nizam of Hyderabad was the only ruler of India to be given the title “His Exalted Highness.”
  2. On the basis of Mountbatten Plan, the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act, 1947 on 28 July 1947.
  3. The Raja of Dhaulpur Riyasat told Mountbatten with tears in his eyes that “this has broken the old relationship of our ancestors and the ancestors of your Emperor which was going on since 1765.”
  4. “The Cripps proposal was a failed attempt to treat a child who was not even born,” said Pattabhi Sitaramayya.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (3) and (4) only
(C) (2) and (3) only
(D) (1) and (4) only

Correct Answer: (B) (3) and (4) only


🔍 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Incorrect:
    The title “His Exalted Highness” was given to Mir Osman Ali Khan, the 7th Nizam of Hyderabad, not the 6th (Mir Mahboob Ali Khan). Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect:
    The Indian Independence Act was passed on 18 July 1947, not 28 July. Therefore, this statement is factually incorrect.
  • Statement 3 – Correct:
    The Raja of Dhaulpur indeed made this emotional statement to Lord Mountbatten, lamenting the end of a centuries-old relationship dating back to 1765.
  • Statement 4 – Correct:
    Pattabhi Sitaramayya famously remarked that the Cripps Mission proposal was like trying to treat a child not yet born — meaning it was too premature and ineffective.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Important events and personalities related to India’s independence and princely states integration.

Q34. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. “No Viceroy in modern times has been subjected to a fiercer criticism than Lytton.” – P.E. Roberts
  2. In the year 1907, D.K. Karve founded Indian Women’s University in Mumbai.
  3. The South Indian Liberal Federation later came to be known as the Justice Party.
  4. Bipin Chandra Pal founded the United Indian Patriotic Association.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (3) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (3) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (4) only


Correct Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only

🔍 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 – Correct:
    P.E. Roberts did famously remark that Lord Lytton was subject to intense criticism, especially due to his policies such as the Vernacular Press Act, Arms Act, and handling of the Great Famine of 1876–78.
  • Statement 2 – Incorrect:
    D.K. Karve founded the Indian Women’s University (SNDT) in 1916, not in 1907, and initially in Pune (later moved to Mumbai).
  • Statement 3 – Correct:
    The South Indian Liberal Federation, formed in 1916, later became known as the Justice Party, advocating for non-Brahmin representation in colonial administration.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect:
    The United Indian Patriotic Association was founded by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, not Bipin Chandra Pal. Pal was associated with the extremist wing of the Indian National Congress.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Prominent personalities, educational movements, and political organizations in modern Indian history.


Q35. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Static)

Question:
In which year “The Co-operative Credit Societies Act” was passed?

Options:
(A) 1901
(B) 1903
(C) 1904
(D) 1907


Correct Answer: (C) 1904

🔍 Explanation:

The Co-operative Credit Societies Act, 1904 was a landmark legislation passed by the British Government to encourage rural credit institutions in India. It laid the foundation for the cooperative movement in the country by allowing the formation of cooperative credit societies, especially to address the exploitative practices of moneylenders in rural areas. This Act allowed these societies to register legally and operate within a formal structure.


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding key legislative developments that shaped India’s rural financial system and cooperative banking.

Q36. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Government Schemes (Static + Current Affairs)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched in 1996–97.
(2) Command Area Development Programme was taken up in 2014–15.
(3) Hydrology Project was launched by Government of India with the World Bank assistance in 1974–75.
(4) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana was launched during 2015–16.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (4) only
(B) (2) and (4) only
(C) (3) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (2) only


Correct Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only


🔍 Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) was launched in 1996–97 to expedite the completion of large irrigation projects that were pending for a long time due to financial constraints.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) was launched in 2015–16 to ensure efficient water use in agriculture through the concept of “Har Khet Ko Pani”.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Command Area Development Programme (CADP) began in the 1970s, not in 2014–15.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hydrology Project, supported by the World Bank, was launched in 1995–96, not 1974–75.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Government Schemes (Static + Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Programs related to irrigation and water management are critical under the agriculture and rural development theme in General Studies.

Q37. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Geography (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) The cool dry season lasts from mid-September to mid-December in India.
(2) The cyclones in October form over the Bay of Bengal between 8° and 14° N.
(3) The Coromandel coastal region receives more than 90 percent of its rainfall during summer season.
(4) October and November months represent a primary rainy season in Kerala.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (3) and (4) only
(B) (2) and (4) only
(C) (1) and (2) only
(D) (1) and (3) only

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding seasonal rainfall, cyclone formation, and regional climate patterns is essential

Q38. HPAS 2025 QUESTION PAPER – INDIAN POLITY (STATIC)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

  1. Constitutional Draft Committee had seven members.
  2. B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of Drafts Committee.
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the members of that committee.
  4. Mohammad Saadulla was not a member of that committee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (3) only
(B) (2) and (4) only
(C) (4) and (3) only
(D) (1) and (2) only

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D) (1) and (2) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Drafting Committee was formed on 29 August 1947 with seven members.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the committee.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru was not a part of the Drafting Committee. He led the Union Constitution Committee.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Mohammad Saadulla was indeed a member of the Drafting Committee.

Members of the Drafting Committee:

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
  • N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
  • Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
  • K.M. Munshi
  • Mohammad Saadulla
  • B.L. Mitter (replaced by N. Madhava Rao)
  • D.P. Khaitan (replaced by T.T. Krishnamachari)

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Polity (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: The composition of the Drafting Committee is an essential topic under Indian Constitution formation and appears frequently in HPAS prelims and mains under GS Paper II.

Q39. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) INA trial was first initiated against Shah Nawaz, Prem Sahgal and G.S. Dhillon.
(2) Subhash Chandra Bose was the main leader of the defence team.
(3) This trial was held in a secretive manner.
(4) From Congress Party, Jawaharlal Nehru, Tej Bahadur Sapru and K.N. Katju were ready for the defence of these INA soldiers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (3) and (4) only
(C) (1) and (4) only
(D) (2) and (3) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) (1) and (4) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement (1) is correct: The first INA trial was initiated against Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Sahgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon at the Red Fort in 1945.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect: Subhash Chandra Bose was not present during the trials; he had disappeared in 1945 and was not part of the defence team.
  • Statement (3) is incorrect: The trial was held publicly in the Red Fort and drew massive national attention and media coverage.
  • Statement (4) is correct: Jawaharlal Nehru, Tej Bahadur Sapru, and Kailash Nath Katju were among the prominent Congress lawyers who volunteered for the defence.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Important trials such as the INA Trials are frequently asked under themes related to the freedom struggle and contributions of the Indian National Army.

Q40. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Polity (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) Article 13(2) provides reservations to backward classes.
(2) Article 15(4) and 16(4) provide reservations for OBCs.
(3) Article 15(6) and 16(6) provide reservations to EWS of society.
(4) Article 14 provides reservation for SC & STs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (3) and (4) only
(D) (4) and (1) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 question paper): (B) (2) and (3) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 question paper):

  • Statement (1) is incorrect: Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making laws that abridge or take away Fundamental Rights. It does not deal with reservations.
  • Statement (2) is correct: Article 15(4) and 16(4) empower the State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, including OBCs.
  • Statement (3) is correct: Article 15(6) and 16(6), inserted by the 103rd Constitutional Amendment, provide for reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
  • Statement (4) is incorrect: Article 14 deals with the “Right to Equality” and does not provide any direct provision for reservation. Reservation for SCs and STs is addressed under Articles 15(4), 16(4), 330, and 332.

Subject in HPAS 2025 question paper: Indian Polity (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 question paper: Understanding Constitutional Articles related to reservation policies is essential for both Prelims and Mains, especially under Fundamental Rights and affirmative action themes.

Q41. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which of the following statements about India’s inflation trends in 2024 are correct?

(1) CPI inflation fell to 3.65% in August 2024.
(2) Core inflation remained above 4% throughout FY 2024–25.
(3) WPI inflation turned negative in Q1 2024–25.
(4) Food inflation was the primary driver of CPI increases.

Choose the correct statements from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (4) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (2) only
(D) (3) and (4) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 question paper): (A) (1) and (4) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 question paper):

  • Statement (1) is correct: According to official inflation data, CPI inflation dropped to 3.65% in August 2024, showing moderation in price levels.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect: Core inflation (excluding food and fuel) actually fell below 4%, reflecting easing pressures in core segments such as housing, education, and transport.
  • Statement (3) is incorrect: While WPI inflation did show a declining trend, it did not remain consistently negative throughout Q1 2024–25.
  • Statement (4) is correct: Food inflation, especially driven by vegetables and pulses, was the primary factor behind spikes in overall CPI inflation in mid-2024.

Subject in HPAS 2025 question paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 question paper: Inflation and its components are key areas under GS-III. Awareness of trends in CPI, WPI, and drivers like food prices is important for both Prelims and Mains.

Q42. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which of the following statements about India’s startup ecosystem in 2024 are correct?

(1) India had over 1.17 lakh recognized startups.
(2) The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme disbursed Rs. 1,000 crore.
(3) Unicorn startups doubled in number since 2020.
(4) The National Startup Advisory Council was dissolved in 2024.

Choose the correct statements from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (4) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (2) only
(D) (3) and (4) only


Correct Answer: None of the options are fully correct
Accurate Combination (HPAS 2025 question paper): (1) and (3) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 question paper):

  • Statement (1) is correct – As per the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), India crossed 1.17 lakh recognized startups in 2024.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect – The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme had a total corpus of ₹945 crore, not ₹1,000 crore.
  • Statement (3) is correct – The number of unicorns in India increased from around 30–35 in 2020 to over 100 by 2024, effectively doubling.
  • Statement (4) is incorrect – The National Startup Advisory Council was not dissolved; instead, it was reconstituted in December 2023 with new members.

Subject in HPAS 2025 question paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 question paper: Questions related to startup policies, innovation, and economic growth are highly relevant for Prelims and GS-III Mains, particularly under entrepreneurship and industrial development sections.

Q43. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – General Science (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) Soil is important for life on earth.
(2) Removal of land surface by ice is known as erosion.
(3) Clay and loam soil is used to make pots.
(4) Clayey soil is used to grow cotton crop.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (2) and (4) only
(C) (1) and (3) only
(D) (1) and (4) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 question paper): (A) (1) and (2) only)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 question paper):

  • Statement (1) is correct: Soil is essential for plant growth, food production, and supporting biodiversity—making it fundamental for life on earth.
  • Statement (2) is correct: Ice causes erosion through glacial activity, which removes the top layers of land or rock.
  • Statement (3) is incorrect: While clay is commonly used for pottery due to its plasticity and fine particles, loam is not ideal for pots.
  • Statement (4) is incorrect: Cotton grows best in black soil, which has good water retention and is rich in lime, iron, and magnesium—not in heavy clayey soil, which retains too much water and can hinder root development.

Subject in HPAS 2025 question paper: General Science (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 question paper: Understanding basic environmental processes like erosion and soil types is crucial for both Prelims and GS-I in Mains, especially in questions linked to agriculture and resource geography.

Q44. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – General Science (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) A concave mirror always forms a real image.
(2) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen.
(3) A concave lens always forms a virtual image.
(4) White light is composed of seven colours.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (2) and (4) only
(C) (3) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (3) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) (3) and (4) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement (1) is incorrect – A concave mirror can form both real and virtual images, depending on the position of the object. If the object is placed between the focus and the mirror, the image is virtual, erect, and magnified.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect – A real image can be projected and obtained on a screen, which is one of its defining characteristics.
  • Statement (3) is correct – A concave lens (diverging lens) always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image, regardless of the object’s position.
  • Statement (4) is correctWhite light is composed of seven colours: violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red (VIBGYOR).

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: General Science (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Conceptual questions from optics, light behaviour, and basic physics principles are frequently tested in HPAS Prelims under General Studies Paper-I.

Q45. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Current Affairs (International Observances)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) World Day of Social Justice is celebrated on February 28.
(2) World Day of Social Justice 2025 theme was “Empowering Social Protection”.
(3) World Day of Social Justice was established by UNGA in 2007.
(4) World Day of Social Justice is commemorated to combat unemployment, social exclusion, and poverty.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (3) and (4) only
(D) (1) and (3) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) (3) and (4) only)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement (1) is incorrect – World Day of Social Justice is celebrated annually on February 20, not February 28.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect – The theme for 2025 was “Empowering Inclusion: Bridging Gaps for Social Justice”, not “Empowering Social Protection.”
  • Statement (3) is correct – The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) established the day in 2007 to promote awareness of social justice.
  • Statement (4) is correct – The day is observed to highlight efforts to combat unemployment, poverty, social exclusion, and inequality, especially in the context of inclusive growth and fair opportunity.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Current Affairs (International Observances)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Awareness of UN-recognized international days, their themes, and significance is a recurring area in HPAS prelims under international current events.

Q46. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) Atacama is a coastal desert.
(2) Rub-el-Khali is a cold desert.
(3) Sahara desert annually receives more than 50 cm of rainfall.
(4) Cold deserts generally have 2–25°C annual temperature.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (2) and (4) only
(B) (1) and (4) only
(C) (1) and (3) only
(D) (2) and (3) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) (1) and (4) only)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement (1) is correct – The Atacama Desert, located along the coast of Chile and Peru, is classified as a coastal desert and is one of the driest places on Earth.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect – The Rub’ al Khali (Empty Quarter) is a hot desert located in the Arabian Peninsula, not a cold one.
  • Statement (3) is incorrect – The Sahara Desert typically receives less than 25 cm of rainfall annually, far below 50 cm.
  • Statement (4) is correctCold deserts, such as the Gobi or Ladakh, generally have annual temperatures ranging from 2°C to 25°C, characterized by dry air and cold winters.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding the types and characteristics of world deserts is essential under the physical geography section of General Studies – Paper I.

Q47. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Consider the following statements regarding public finance of Himachal Pradesh:

(1) According to Budget Estimate for the year 2024–25, share of revenue expenditure out of total expenditure is around 80 percent.
(2) Debt as a percentage of GSDP reached 75.33 during the year 2022–23.
(3) State’s own tax revenue as a percentage of total revenue for the year 2024–25 (BE) increased to 27.4.
(4) During FY 2024–25 (BE), education and health sector were allocated Rs. 9995 and Rs. 8575 crores respectively.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (3) only
(B) (1) and (2) only
(C) (1) and (4) only
(D) (2) and (3) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) (1) and (3) only)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement (1) is correct – As per the Budget Estimates 2024–25, revenue expenditure constituted around 80% of the total expenditure, indicating a high dependency on routine and committed expenses.
  • Statement (2) is incorrect – The debt-to-GSDP ratio for Himachal Pradesh was below 50%, and not as high as 75.33% in 2022–23.
  • Statement (3) is correctState’s own tax revenue was projected at 27.4% of total revenue in the 2024–25 BE, showing a marginal improvement in the state’s fiscal independence.
  • Statement (4) is incorrect – While education and health received significant allocations, the exact figures mentioned in the statement are not accurate as per official budget data.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Questions on state budget, fiscal policy indicators, and sectoral allocations are crucial for HPAS Prelims and GS-III Mains.

Q48. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
According to PLFS 2023-24, share of secondary and tertiary sector in total employment in Himachal Pradesh respectively are:
(A) 25 percent and 30 percent
(B) 27 percent and 30 percent
(C) 22 percent and 24 percent
(D) 18 percent and 25 percent


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) 22 percent and 24 percent


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
As per Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023–24, the employment distribution in Himachal Pradesh is as follows:

  • Primary sector: 53.98%
  • Secondary sector: 22.01%
  • Tertiary sector: 24.01%
    This reflects a still predominantly agrarian employment pattern in the state, with only moderate growth in secondary and services sectors.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Employment distribution across sectors is a key economic indicator frequently tested in both Prelims and GS Paper III of the HPAS Mains.

Q49. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh Demographics (Static)

Question:
According to Census 2011, consider the following statements regarding sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) in Kullu district:

Statement I: Sex ratio in 2011 is lower than in 1911.
Statement II: Sex ratio in 2011 in Kullu district is lower in Himachal.

Choose the correct option:
(A) Both Statements are correct
(B) Only Statement I is correct
(C) Only Statement II is correct
(D) Both Statements are incorrect


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) Only Statement II is correct


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement I is incorrect: The sex ratio in Kullu has improved over the century. The 1911 records were not reliable across districts, and the sex ratio has generally seen an upward trend post-independence.
  • Statement II is correct: As per Census 2011, Kullu district had a lower sex ratio (around 917) compared to the state average of 972 in Himachal Pradesh.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh Demographics (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding district-wise demographic indicators like sex ratio is essential for both Prelims and GS Paper III of HPAS Mains, particularly under Human Resource and Population themes.

Q50. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh Environment & Wildlife (Static)

Question:
Consider the following statements:

(1) Kibber is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh.
(2) Kheerganga National Park was established in 1994 in Himachal Pradesh.
(3) Tarla Wildlife Sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh has an area of 46.4 km².
(4) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh was established in 1962.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (1) and (3) only
(B) (1) and (2) only
(C) (1) and (4) only
(D) (2) and (4) only


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) (1) and (3) only


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement 1 is correct: Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the Spiti Valley of Lahaul & Spiti district, is the largest in Himachal Pradesh with an area of approximately 2,220.12 km².
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Kheerganga National Park was established in 2010, not in 1994.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Tarla Wildlife Sanctuary in Shimla district covers 46.4 km².
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Chail Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1976, not 1962.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh Environment & Wildlife (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Wildlife sanctuaries and national parks in Himachal Pradesh are commonly asked topics under Environment in both Prelims and GS-I Mains, especially considering the state’s rich ecological diversity.Q51. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Government Schemes (Static + Current Affairs)

Question:
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Scheme)List-II (Ministry)
(a) Atal Pension Yojana(i) Ministry of Communications
(b) Startup India Scheme(ii) Ministry of Finance
(c) Eco-NIWAS(iii) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) BharatNet(iv) Ministry of Power

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Atal Pension Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Finance through PFRDA to provide pension to workers in the unorganized sector.
  • Startup India Scheme is managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, aimed at fostering innovation and startups.
  • Eco-NIWAS Samhita is an initiative under the Ministry of Power, focusing on energy efficiency in building construction.
  • BharatNet project falls under the Ministry of Communications, aiming to provide broadband connectivity to rural India.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Government Schemes (Static + Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Matching schemes with their nodal ministries is a frequent question type in HPAS Prelims, testing awareness of flagship initiatives and governance structure.

Q52. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Science & Technology (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which of the following institutes drafted the Legal Metrology (IST) Rules, 2015?

(A) National Physical Laboratory
(B) Physical Research Laboratory
(C) Central Scientific Instruments Organization
(D) National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology


Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) National Physical Laboratory


Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
The National Physical Laboratory (NPL), under the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), is India’s national timekeeper. NPL, in collaboration with the Department of Consumer Affairs, drafted the Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2015 to standardize and legally define IST (Indian Standard Time).

NPL is also working with ISRO to implement high-precision time dissemination projects under “One Nation, One Time” to ensure national synchronization with millisecond to microsecond accuracy, which is vital for sectors like telecom, power grid, stock exchange, and navigation.


Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Science & Technology (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Developments in legal standards of timekeeping and collaborations between scientific institutions and government bodies are commonly asked in HPAS prelims, particularly in the context of technological governance.

Q53. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Author)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

List-II (Book)
(i) The Political Future of India
(ii) Pakistan or The Partition of India
(iii) Whither India
(iv) Guide to London

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iv)(iii)(ii)
(B)(iv)(iii)(i)
(C)(ii)(iii)(iv)
(D)(ii)(iii)(i)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)
Matching:

  • (a) Mahatma Gandhi → Guide to London
  • (b) J.L. Nehru → Whither India
  • (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar → Pakistan or The Partition of India
  • (d) Lala Lajpat Rai → The Political Future of India

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Prominent leaders and their writings are frequently tested to assess awareness of political thought and nationalist ideologies.


Q54. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Match the Tribal Leaders with their respective regions.

List-I (Tribal Leader)
(a) U Tirot Sing
(b) Thalakkal Chandu
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(d) Chakra Bisoi

List-II (Region)
(i) Odisha
(ii) Andhra
(iii) Kerala
(iv) Meghalaya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(i)(i)
(B)(ii)(iii)(i)
(C)(i)(ii)(iii)
(D)(iv)(iii)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D)

Matching:

  • (a) U Tirot Sing → Meghalaya
  • (b) Thalakkal Chandu → Kerala
  • (c) Alluri Sitaram Raju → Andhra
  • (d) Chakra Bisoi → Odisha

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Tribal resistance movements and regional uprisings against British rule form an essential part of the HPAS syllabus under the freedom struggle theme.

Q55. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Polity (Static)

Question:
In which case did the Supreme Court decide that not singing the National Anthem cannot be considered disrespect or an offence?

Options:
(A) Bijoe Emmanuel case
(B) Braj Bhushan case
(C) Maneka Gandhi case
(D) M.C. Mittal case

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Bijoe Emmanuel case

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
In the Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala (1986) case, the Supreme Court ruled that students belonging to the Jehovah’s Witnesses sect could not be compelled to sing the National Anthem if it went against their religious beliefs, provided they stood respectfully. This upheld Article 25 – the right to freedom of religion.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Polity (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Interpretation of fundamental rights, particularly freedom of religion and expression, is frequently tested in HPAS.


Q56. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy & Industry (Static)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Place)
(a) Phagwara
(b) Gokak
(c) Kullu
(d) Mandya

List-II (Industry)
(i) Silk Textile Industry
(ii) Woollen Textile Industry
(iii) Sugar Industry
(iv) Cotton Textile Industry

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(i)(ii)(iii)
(B)(iv)(ii)(i)
(C)(iv)(ii)(iii)
(D)(iv)(i)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D)

Matching Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • (a) Phagwara → Cotton Textile Industry
  • (b) Gokak → Silk Textile Industry
  • (c) Kullu → Woollen Textile Industry
  • (d) Mandya → Sugar Industry

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy & Industry (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Location-based industrial geography and economic zones are important for Prelims and GS Paper III.


Q57. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Geography (Static)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Range)
(a) The Aravalli Range
(b) The Satpura Range
(c) The Western Ghats
(d) The Eastern Ghats

List-II (Peak)
(i) Gali Konda
(ii) Guru Shikhar
(iii) Kalsubai
(iv) Dhoopgarh

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iv)(iii)
(B)(ii)(iii)(i)
(C)(ii)(i)(iii)
(D)(ii)(i)(iv)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Matching Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • (a) Aravalli Range → Guru Shikhar (highest peak)
  • (b) Satpura Range → Dhoopgarh
  • (c) Western Ghats → Kalsubai (in Maharashtra)
  • (d) Eastern Ghats → Gali Konda

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Physical geography and topographical features are routinely asked in HPAS Prelims under GS-I.

Q58. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Social Reformers)
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Swami Dayananda
(c) Swami Vivekananda
(d) Jyotiba Phule

List-II (Organisation)
(i) Satya Shodhak Samaj
(ii) Ramakrishna Mission
(iii) Brahmo Samaj
(iv) Arya Samaj

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(i)(ii)(iv)
(B)(iii)(iv)(ii)
(C)(ii)(iv)(i)
(D)(iv)(i)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy → Brahmo Samaj (iii)
  • Swami Dayananda → Arya Samaj (iv)
  • Swami Vivekananda → Ramakrishna Mission (ii)
  • Jyotiba Phule → Satya Shodhak Samaj (i)

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Important reformers and their movements are crucial for both Prelims and Mains GS-I.


Q59. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Polity (Static)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Constitutional Amendments)
(a) 77th Amendment
(b) 81st Amendment
(c) 82nd Amendment
(d) 85th Amendment

List-II (Reservations for SC & STs)
(i) “Consequential Seniority” in Reservation
(ii) Reservations in Promotion
(iii) Relaxation in Qualifying Marks
(iv) Carry Forward Unfilled Vacancies of SC & STs

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iv)(iii)
(B)(i)(ii)(iii)
(C)(iii)(iv)(i)
(D)(ii)(iii)(iv)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • 77th Amendment → (ii) Provided for reservations in promotions
  • 81st Amendment → (iv) Allowed carry forward of unfilled SC/ST vacancies
  • 82nd Amendment → (iii) Allowed relaxation in qualifying marks
  • 85th Amendment → (i) Provided consequential seniority in promotion

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Polity (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Amendments related to social justice and reservation are important for GS Paper II and polity-related questions in Prelims.


Q60. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Match the following economic policies with their launch years:

List-I
(a) PM-KISAN
(b) Ayushman Bharat
(c) Startup India
(d) Gati Shakti

List-II
(i) 2016
(ii) 2019
(iii) 2018
(iv) 2021

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iii)(i)
(B)(i)(iv)(iii)
(C)(iii)(ii)(iv)
(D)(iv)(i)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • PM-KISAN → (ii) Launched in 2019
  • Ayushman Bharat → (iii) Launched in 2018
  • Startup India → (i) Launched in 2016
  • Gati Shakti → (iv) Launched in 2021

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Knowledge of key schemes and their timelines is vital for Prelims and for writing data-rich answers in GS Paper III.

Q61. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Match the following inflation metrics with their values for FY 2024–25 (April–December):

List-I
(a) CPI Inflation (%)
(b) Food Inflation (%)
(c) Core Inflation (%)
(d) WPI Inflation (%)

List-II
(i) 2.1
(ii) 8.4
(iii) 5.4
(iv) 3.5

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iii)(i)
(B)(i)(iv)(iii)
(C)(iii)(ii)(iv)
(D)(iv)(i)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C)
(a) – 5.4%
(b) – 8.4%
(c) – 3.5%
(d) – 2.1%

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • CPI inflation was moderate at 5.4%
  • Food inflation surged to 8.4% due to volatility in key commodities
  • Core inflation eased to 3.5% due to decline in services and non-food goods
  • WPI inflation entered deflationary territory at 2.1%

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Knowing recent macroeconomic data is vital for GS Paper III and Prelims.


Q62. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Institutions & Governance)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (ICFRE Centre)
(a) IWST
(b) IFB
(c) IFR
(d) RFRI

List-II (Place)
(i) Hyderabad
(ii) Jorhat
(iii) Bengaluru
(iv) Ranchi

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iv)(i)
(B)(i)(iii)(iv)
(C)(iii)(i)(iv)
(D)(iii)(iv)(i)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • IWST → Bengaluru
  • IFB → Hyderabad
  • IFR → Ranchi
  • RFRI → Jorhat

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment – Institutional Framework (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Directly linked to forestry research, ecology governance, and GS III/Prelims static questions.


Q63. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Agriculture (Static GK)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Indian Breed of Sheep)
(a) Patanwadi
(b) Bakharwal
(c) Rampur Bushair
(d) Lohi

List-II (State where found)
(i) Rajasthan
(ii) Jammu & Kashmir
(iii) Gujarat
(iv) Himachal Pradesh

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(i)(ii)(iv)
(B)(iii)(i)(iv)
(C)(iii)(ii)(iv)
(D)(ii)(iv)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Patanwadi → Gujarat
  • Bakharwal → Jammu & Kashmir
  • Rampur Bushair → Himachal Pradesh
  • Lohi → Rajasthan

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Agriculture & Animal Husbandry (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Regional livestock knowledge is frequently asked in Prelims and GS Paper III (Himachal-specific).


Q64. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Science (Biology – Static)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Function)
(a) Absorption of food
(b) Killing of bacteria
(c) Chewing of food
(d) Formation of faeces

List-II (Part of digestive canal)
(i) Stomach
(ii) Large intestine
(iii) Small intestine
(iv) Buccal cavity

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iii)(i)(iv)
(B)(i)(iii)(ii)
(C)(iii)(iv)(ii)
(D)(iii)(ii)(i)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Absorption of food → Small Intestine
  • Killing of bacteria → Stomach (via hydrochloric acid)
  • Chewing of food → Buccal cavity
  • Formation of faeces → Large Intestine

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: General Science – Human Biology (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Basics of human physiology are important for both Prelims and GS Paper III under Science & Tech.

Q65. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Days & Dates (Static GK)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Day)
(a) Jan Aushadhi Diwas
(b) World Sparrow Day
(c) Pi Day
(d) World Heritage Day

List-II (Date)
(i) April 18
(ii) March 20
(iii) March 07
(iv) March 14

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iii)(ii)(iv)
(B)(i)(iii)(iv)
(C)(iii)(iv)(i)
(D)(iii)(i)(iv)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Jan Aushadhi Diwas – March 07
  • World Sparrow Day – March 20
  • Pi Day – March 14
  • World Heritage Day – April 18

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: General Awareness (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Recognizing important observance days is frequently tested in HPAS Prelims.


Q66. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static GK)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Name of Peak)
(a) Mt. Whitney
(b) Mt. Logan
(c) Ben Nevis
(d) Mont Blanc

List-II (Country)
(i) Canada
(ii) U.S.A.
(iii) France
(iv) Scotland

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(i)(iv)
(B)(i)(ii)(iv)
(C)(i)(iii)(ii)
(D)(ii)(ii)(iii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Mt. Whitney → U.S.A.
  • Mt. Logan → Canada
  • Ben Nevis → Scotland
  • Mont Blanc → France

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Geography (World) – Static GK
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Location of famous mountains is a frequently asked static geography question.


Q67. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Who was the politician and social worker popularly called “Sindhi Gandhi” in the Sindh region, and was elected to the 1st legislative assembly of Part ‘C’ state of Himachal Pradesh (1952–56)?

(A) Krishna Nand Swami
(B) Pt. Padam Dev
(C) Gauri Parsad
(D) Piru Ram

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Krishna Nand Swami

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Krishna Nand Swami was called Sindhi Gandhi.
  • Notable freedom fighters with similar titles:
    • Pahari Gandhi – Baba Kanshi Ram
    • Pahari Frontier Gandhi – Bhajju Mal

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: State political personalities and freedom fighters form a key part of the static HP GK section.


Q68. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Data & Reports)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Code)
(a) Highest Rainfall (2018 Data)
(b) Second Most Incidents Reported (2024 Crime Data)
(c) Fourth Highest Population (2011 Census)
(d) Fourth Largest Area

List-II (District)
(i) Shimla
(ii) Mandi
(iii) Kangra
(iv) Solan

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iii)(i)
(B)(i)(iv)(iii)
(C)(iii)(ii)(iv)
(D)(iv)(i)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Kangra – Highest Rainfall (2018)
  • Mandi – Second Most Crime Incidents (2024)
  • Solan – Fourth Highest Population (2011)
  • Shimla – Fourth Largest Area

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static + Reports)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: District-wise data on demographics, crime, and geography are important for Prelims and Mains GS Paper I.


Q69. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh Schemes (Static + Current Affairs)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Scheme)
(a) Mukhya Mantri Roshni Yojana
(b) Himachal Pradesh Horticulture Development Project
(c) Mukhya Mantri Gram Path Yojana
(d) Swavalamban Yojana

List-II (Starting Year)
(i) 2015
(ii) 2019
(iii) 2009
(iv) 2020

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(ii)(iii)(i)
(B)(i)(iv)(iii)
(C)(iii)(ii)(iv)
(D)(iv)(i)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Mukhya Mantri Roshni Yojana → 2020
  • Horticulture Development Project → 2015
  • Mukhya Mantri Gram Path Yojana → 2019
  • Swavalamban Yojana → 2009

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh Govt Schemes – (Static & Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Understanding scheme timelines is essential for GS-II and Prelims in HPAS.

Q70. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Match List I with List II:

List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary)
(a) Kias
(b) Tarla
(c) Tundah
(d) Bandli

List-II (District)
(i) Kullu
(ii) Shimla
(iii) Chamba
(iv) Mandi

Choose the correct answer:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(i)(ii)(iii)
(B)(ii)(iv)(i)
(C)(iii)(iv)(i)
(D)(iv)(iii)(ii)

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A)

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Kais Sanctuary – Kullu
  • Tarla Sanctuary – Shimla
  • Tundah Sanctuary – Chamba
  • Bandli Sanctuary – Mandi

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Sanctuary locations are frequently asked in HPAS Prelims.


Q71. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Current Affairs)

Question:
Where was the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) held?

(A) Gir National Park
(B) Kanha National Park
(C) Wildlife Institute of India
(D) Corbett National Park

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Gir National Park

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
The 7th NBWL meeting was chaired by the Prime Minister on World Wildlife Day at Gir National Park, the only habitat of the Asiatic Lion.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: National-level environmental events and biodiversity hotspots are common in Prelims.


Q72. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Economy (Static)

Question:
Which of the following is not a constituent body of the National Statistics Office (NSO)?

(A) Central Statistical Office
(B) Data Informatics and Innovation Division
(C) Indian Statistical Institute
(D) National Sample Survey Office

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) Indian Statistical Institute

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • The NSO comprises the CSO, NSSO, and Data Informatics and Innovation Division.
  • Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an autonomous academic institute, not part of NSO.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Economy – Institutions (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Institutional knowledge under economic governance is important in both Prelims and Mains.


Q73. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Who said these words after the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi:

“We have learned our lesson at a very high price. Is there anyone among us who would refuse to carry on Gandhi’s mission after his death? Hindustan will have to unite and fight against that terrible poison of communalism, which has taken away from us the greatest man of our times.”

(A) J.L. Nehru
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(D) Sarojini Naidu

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) J.L. Nehru

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Quotes by national leaders are a recurring theme in HPAS Prelims and Mains essays.


Q74. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
Marble Falls refer to:

(A) The Narmada system
(B) The Tapi system
(C) The Krishna system
(D) The Kaveri system

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) The Narmada system

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Dhuandhar Falls at Bhedaghat in Madhya Pradesh on the Narmada River are known for flowing through the Marble Rocks gorge.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Famous waterfalls and river systems are frequent in Prelims.


Q75. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
Baghelkhand region is located to the east of:

(A) The Malwa Plateau
(B) The Maikal Range
(C) The Chota Nagpur Plateau
(D) The Telangana Plateau

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) The Malwa Plateau

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Baghelkhand lies east of Malwa Plateau, spanning northeastern Madhya Pradesh and adjoining eastern UP.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Plateau regions and their relative locations are commonly asked in UPSC-like state exams.

Q76. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Polity (Static)

Question:
Who decides the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly, for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?

(A) Governor of the State
(B) State High Court
(C) Speaker, Legislative Assembly
(D) State Election Commission

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Governor of the State

Explanation:
For disqualification matters not covered under the Tenth Schedule (like under Articles 191 and 192), the Governor decides based on the opinion of the Election Commission.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Polity (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Constitutional provisions regarding MLA disqualifications are frequently tested.


Q77. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Polity (Static)

Question:
What is the objective of a Cut Motion in Parliament?

(A) To restrict day-to-day financial expenditure of Government
(B) To restrict grants of the Government
(C) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in budget proposals
(D) To restrict grants from Consolidated Fund of India

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in budget proposals

Explanation:
Cut Motions are a parliamentary tool to challenge specific budget allocations. They allow members to propose reductions in the amount of demand for grants.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Polity (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Budgetary process and tools of parliamentary control are common in GS-II.


Q78. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Static)

Question:
Which of the following best explains the “Twin Balance Sheet” problem in the Indian economy?

(A) High fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(B) High NPAs and low capital buffer in NBFCs
(C) Stressed balance sheets of banks and over-leveraged corporates
(D) Bad loans in agriculture and MSME sector

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C)

Explanation:
Twin Balance Sheet refers to:

  • Stressed corporate balance sheets due to over-borrowing.
  • Weak banking sector balance sheets due to rising NPAs from those loans.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: It was a key economic reform issue post-2016.


Q79. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Static)

Question:
Which of the following can cause Stagflation?

(A) Rapid increase in aggregate demand
(B) Sudden supply shock like rise in oil prices
(C) Expansionary fiscal policy
(D) Appreciation of the domestic currency

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B)

Explanation:
Stagflation is a situation of low growth + high inflation.
It typically arises from supply shocks (e.g., sudden rise in oil prices) that raise costs and reduce output simultaneously.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Macro-economic terminology is frequently tested.


Q80. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which Indian state ranked number one in NITI Aayog’s Fiscal Health Index 2025?

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Goa
(D) Odisha

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D) Odisha

Explanation:
Odisha topped the Fiscal Health Index 2025, followed by Chhattisgarh, Goa, Jharkhand, and Gujarat — based on indicators like fiscal deficit, debt-to-GSDP, revenue mobilization, etc.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: State performance indicators and reports are relevant for GS-II and GS-III.


Q81. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which of the following best explains “Operation Twist” by the RBI?

(A) It increases CRR while decreasing SLR
(B) It simultaneously buys long-term and sells short-term government securities
(C) It raises repo rate but reduces reverse repo
(D) It involves swapping forex reserves for rupee bonds

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B)

Explanation:
Operation Twist is a monetary policy operation involving:

  • Buying long-term government securities to reduce long-term interest rates
  • Selling short-term securities to manage yield curves.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Important RBI tool for managing liquidity and bond yields.


Q82. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Environment (Current Affairs)

Question:
Which of the following Indian cities is a wetland accredited city under the Ramsar Convention?

(A) Indore
(B) Bhopal
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Imphal

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Indore

Explanation:
Indore and Udaipur were accredited as India’s first wetland cities under Ramsar Convention in 2024. Bhopal’s nomination was not accepted.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Environment (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Wetlands and Ramsar updates are commonly featured in GS-I and Prelims.


Q83. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Disaster Management (Static)

Question:
When was the National Centre for Disaster Management established in India?

(A) 2005
(B) 1975
(C) 1995
(D) 1985

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) 1995

Explanation:
NCDM was established in 1995 under IIPA. It later evolved into the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) post the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Disaster Management (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Chronology and institutions under DM Act are relevant for GS Paper II.


Q84. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – General Science (Static)

Question:
A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of:

(A) Fertilisation
(B) Metamorphosis
(C) Embedding
(D) Budding

Correct Answer : (B) Metamorphosis

Explanation:
Metamorphosis is a biological transformation. Tadpoles undergo a radical change — developing limbs, lungs, and losing their tail — to become adult frogs.

Subject : Biology (Static)
Relevance : Basic biology processes like reproduction and development are part of GS-I.

Q85. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – International Affairs (Current Affairs)

Question:
What was the theme of the 8th Indian Ocean Conference held at Muscat, Oman?

(A) Maritime security and counterterrorism
(B) Maritime security threats
(C) Economic Lifeline and Trade
(D) Voyage to New Horizons of maritime partnership

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D) Voyage to New Horizons of maritime partnership

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
The 8th Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) brought together leaders and experts from across the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). The 2025 theme focused on enhancing maritime cooperation and exploring new dimensions of partnership and security in the region.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: International Relations (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: IOC and Indian maritime diplomacy are regularly asked in GS Paper II and Prelims.


Q86. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Geography (Static)

Question:
The Cocos Plate is located between:

(A) Central America and Pacific Plate
(B) Asiatic and Pacific Plate
(C) South America and Pacific Plate
(D) Philippine and Indian Plate

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Central America and Pacific Plate

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
The Cocos Plate is a small oceanic tectonic plate located off the western coast of Central America. It subducts beneath the Caribbean Plate along the Middle America Trench, causing frequent seismic activity.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Plate tectonics and world geography are key areas in Prelims and Mains GS-I.


Q87. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Who prepared the ‘Report of the Land Revenue Settlement of the Kangra District, printed in 1874’?

(A) J.B. Lyall
(B) G.C. Barnes
(C) J.D. Cunningham
(D) Victor Jacquino

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) J.B. Lyall

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
J.B. Lyall completed the report based on settlement operations initially conducted by Mr. O’Brien. This report detailed Kangra Proper, while Mr. Diack prepared the settlement report for Kullu.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Colonial land settlements and British administrators in Himachal are often included in GS-I Prelims.


Q88. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
Who among the following was not the Vice-President of the Himalayan Hill States Sub-Regional Council?

(A) Tejg Singh Nidhada
(B) Leela Das Verma
(C) Sadaram Chandel
(D) Shivanand Ramaul

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (D) Shivanand Ramaul

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Shivanand Ramaul was not among the known vice-presidents of the Sub-Regional Council, which worked toward the integration and representation of hill states pre-statehood.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Regional political developments and administrative history are common in Prelims and Mains.


Q89. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)

Question:
From which constituency was Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar elected to represent in 1952–1966 Himachal Assembly?

(A) Rajgarh
(B) Pachhad
(C) Renuka
(D) Nahan

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) Pachhad

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Dr. Y.S. Parmar, the founding Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh, represented the Pachhad constituency in the State Assembly from 1952–1966.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Pradesh GK (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Important leaders and their constituencies are frequently asked.


Q90. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Himachal Geography (Static)

Question:
Mountain Soil Zone in Himachal Pradesh is found between:

(A) 3000–6000 m
(B) 1500–3000 m
(C) 1000–1500 m
(D) 900–1000 m

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) 1500–3000 m

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):
Himachal Pradesh has five soil zones based on elevation:

  • Low Hill Zone: Upto 900 m
  • Mid Hill Zone: 900–1500 m
  • Mountain Soil Zone: 1500–3000 m
  • High Hill Soil Zone: Above 3000 m
  • Dry Hill Zone: Found in Lahaul, Spiti, and Kinnaur (rain-shadow areas)

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Himachal Geography (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Soil classification and elevation-based zones are key in both Geography and Agriculture sections.

Q91. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Spices Board of India’s headquarters is located at Kochi.
Statement II: India produces 75 out of 109 spice varieties listed by the International Organisation for Standardisation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • The Spices Board of India is indeed headquartered in Kochi, Kerala, which is India’s spice capital.
  • India produces 75 of the 109 spice varieties recognized by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), making it the largest producer and exporter of spices globally.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Questions on export sectors like spices are key for Prelims and GS-III (Economy).


Q92. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Defence & Economy (Current Affairs)

Question:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: India is the second-largest arms importer after Ukraine during 2020–24, as per the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report.
Statement II: India has developed two defence industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu to boost defence manufacturing.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • According to SIPRI 2024, Ukraine became the largest arms importer, and India was the second-largest, accounting for 8.3% of global imports.
  • India has launched two Defence Industrial Corridors, one in Uttar Pradesh and the other in Tamil Nadu, aiming to attract ₹20,000 crore in investments.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Defence & Economy (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: India’s defence preparedness and industrial policy are often asked in Prelims and GS Paper III.


Q93. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The revolt of 1857 in Lucknow started on 30th May, 1857.
Statement II: The revolt of 1857 in Kanpur started on 28th June, 1857.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Statement I is correct: The revolt in Lucknow broke out on 30th May 1857.
  • Statement II is incorrect: The revolt in Kanpur started on 4th June 1857, not 28th June.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Modern Indian History (Static)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Timelines and regional spread of the Revolt of 1857 are frequent in Prelims and Mains.

Q94. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Statement I: Mukund Rao Patil started publishing the mouthpiece of Satyashodhak Samaj, Dinmitra, from 1910.
Statement II: Natal Indian Congress was established in 1896. At that time Mahatma Gandhi was made its President.

Choose the correct option:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Dinmitra, the mouthpiece of Satyashodhak Samaj, was not published by Mukund Rao Patil from 1910. It was started earlier and under the guidance of Jyotiba Phule.
  • The Natal Indian Congress was founded in 1894, and Mahatma Gandhi was not its president at the time of its inception, although he played a central role in its formation and leadership.

Q95. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Modern Indian History (Static)

Question:
Statement I: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was not associated with “Independent Labour Party” in India.
Statement II: Kanshi Ram was associated with the “Scheduled Castes Federation” in India.

Choose the correct option:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was associated with the Independent Labour Party, which he founded in 1936.
  • The Scheduled Castes Federation was also founded by Ambedkar in 1942, not Kanshi Ram. Kanshi Ram was associated with the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) and BAMCEF.

Q96. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Indian Polity (Static)

Question:
Statement I: In the Interim Government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister and Head of the Executive Council of Viceroy.
Statement II: Rajni Kothari observed that “It is not politics that gets caste ridden, it is caste that gets politicised”.

Choose the correct option:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as Vice-President of the Executive Council (de facto PM) in the Interim Government of 1946.
  • Rajni Kothari’s well-known observation on caste and politics reflects the politicization of caste rather than caste-ization of politics.

Q97. HPAS 2025 Question Paper – Government Schemes (Current Affairs)

Question:
Statement I: The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers sectors, with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore.
Statement II: The PLI scheme has achieved 100% of its targeted investment in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25.

Choose the correct option:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer (HPAS 2025 Question Paper): (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation (HPAS 2025 Question Paper):

  • The PLI scheme indeed has an outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore, covering 14 key sectors.
  • While the scheme has made significant progress, 100% target investment achievement in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25 is not officially reported, hence Statement II is inaccurate.

Subject in HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Indian Polity & Modern Indian History (Static), Government Schemes (Current Affairs)
Relevance based on HPAS 2025 Question Paper: Important for understanding political and social reform movements, historical figures’ affiliations, and current flagship government initiatives.

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